We shall see later than many people have supposed that there is little real difference between the views of Russell and Frege. Why might one think that? Is it right?
It is important to distinguish the Theory of Descriptions from the Description Theory of Names. The former is a view about the meanings of phrases of the form "The F". The latter is a view about the meanings of proper names. And the most important reason to distinguish these is because one could hold one of these views without holding the other. What sorts of reasons might one have to do that?
If there is anything about Russell's views about descriptions you would like to understand better, feel free to raise such questions here or in class.
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